If we assume the equality of variances in the 2 groups (females and males), does it mean that the whole data is normally distributed?

Hi Ciara, Equality of variance of the two groups does not imply normality of data set. Variance is the spread of data while normality is a special distribution required in tests like z, t or F. Hope this helps. Best,The 365 Team

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Ciara Holder

Last answered:

October 03, 2019

Posted on:

October 03, 2019

Normality

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365 Team

Posted on:

October 03, 2019

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