considering combinatorics without repetition, the relation states that C = V/P. If P = n! and V = n!/(n-p)! then how is C = n!/p!(n-p)!? Can you explain why it is not 1/(n-p)! if you substitute the formula for V and P?

Hey C, If you go back to the Permutation formula, it's defined as P(n) = n!. In that case p = n, so we only use one variable (since it makes more sense). In reality, it's equivalent to p!. Hence, C = V/P = (n!/(n-p)!) / (p!) = n! / ((n-p)! p!). Hope this helps! Best, 365 Vik

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C. Amah

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October 08, 2020

Posted on:

August 07, 2020

Relationship between combination, variation and permutation without repetition

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Viktor Mehandzhiyski

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October 08, 2020

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